Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
08.06.2025 05:14
You'll usually find your answer there.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
There's no rule.
Why is Canada letting too many Indians in Canada?
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
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Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
Can you provide a list of cities named after animals and the animals they were named after?
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.